We know that if a random variable say x ~ Gamma(a, b), then its probability density function is $ \propto x^{a-1} exp^{-bx}$.
In a Bayesian hierarchical model, for example
$Z_1, \cdots, Z_n |\theta \sim iid \; Gamma(r, \theta)$, (r known)$ ;
$\theta \sim \; Gamma(a, b)$,
the full conditional distribution of $\theta$ is
$p(\theta | Z_{1:n}) \propto p(\theta, Z_{1:n}) \propto p(Z_{1:n}|\theta) \times p(\theta)$,
by $Z_{1:n} | \theta \sim iid \; Gamma(r, \theta)$, I think $p(Z_{1:n}|\theta)$ shall be $\Pi_i Z_i^{r-1} exp^{- \theta Z_i}$, but the reading material suggests
$p(Z_{1:n}|\theta) = \Pi_i \theta^{r} exp^{-\theta Z_i}$,
I'm not sure I fully understand why it writes $\theta^{r}$ instead of $Z_i^{r-1}$ in front of $exp^{-\theta Z_i}$.
Can anyone explain? Thanks.