The question is dated but I think it's very important. The best answer I can get is from Joop J Hox (2010) book "Multilevel Analysis Techniques and Applications, Second Edition".
Suppose two-level hierarchical data with $p$ explanatory variables at the lowest level and $q$ explanatory variables at the highest level. Then, at page 55, he writes:
An ordinary single-level regression model for the same data would
estimate only the intercept, one error variance, and p + q regression
slopes. The superiority of the multilevel regression model is clear,
if we consider that the data are clustered in groups. If we have 100
groups, estimating an ordinary multiple regression model in each group
separately requires estimating 100 × (1 regression intercept + 1
residual variance + p regression slopes) plus possible interactions
with the q group-level variables. Multilevel regression replaces
estimating 100 intercepts by estimating an average intercept plus its
residual variance across groups, assuming a normal distribution for
these residuals. Thus, multilevel regression analysis replaces
estimating 100 separate intercepts by estimating two parameters (the
mean and variance of the intercepts), plus a normality assumption. The
same simplification is used for the regression slopes. Instead of
estimating 100 slopes for the explanatory variable pupil gender, we
estimate the average slope along with its variance across groups, and
assume that the distribution of the slopes is normal. Nevertheless,
even with a modest number of explanatory variables, multilevel
regression analysis implies a complicated model. Generally, we do not
want to estimate the complete model, first because this is likely to
get us into computational problems, but also because it is very
difficult to interpret such a complex model. We prefer more limited
models that include only those parameters that have proven their worth
in previous research, or are of special interest for our theoretical
problem.
That's for the description. Now the pages 29-30 will answer your question more accurately.
The predicted intercepts and slopes for the 100 classes are not
identical to the values we would obtain if we carried out 100 separate
ordinary regression analyses in each of the 100 classes, using
standard ordinary least squares (OLS) techniques. If we were to
compare the results from 100 separate OLS regression analyses to the
values obtained from a multilevel regression analysis, we would find
that the results from the separate analyses are more variable. This is
because the multilevel estimates of the regression coefficients of the
100 classes are weighted. They are so-called Empirical Bayes (EB) or
shrinkage estimates: a weighted average of the specific OLS estimate
in each class and the overall regression coefficient, estimated for
all similar classes.
As a result, the regression coefficients are shrunk back towards the
mean coefficient for the whole data set. The shrinkage weight depends
on the reliability of the estimated coefficient. Coefficients that are
estimated with small accuracy shrink more than very accurately
estimated coefficients. Accuracy of estimation depends on two factors:
the group sample size, and the distance between the group-based
estimate and the overall estimate. Estimates for small groups are less
reliable, and shrink more than estimates for large groups. Other
things being equal, estimates that are very far from the overall
estimate are assumed less reliable, and they shrink more than
estimates that are close to the overall average. The statistical
method used is called empirical Bayes estimation. Because of this
shrinkage effect, empirical Bayes estimators are biased. However, they
are usually more precise, a property that is often more useful than
being unbiased (see Kendall, 1959).
I hope it's satisfying.