While reading a paper (surprises in high-dimensional ridgeless least squares interpolation), I was stuck to a part of a section (5.4, page 16~18).
Consider coviariates $x_i = (x_{i,1},\dots,x_{i,p}) \in \mathbb R^p$ and a response variable $y_i \in \mathbb R$ which are distributed as follows: $$y_i = \beta^Tx_i+\epsilon_i, \tag a$$ where $\mathbb E[x_i] = 0, \text{Cov}[x_i] = \Sigma$ and $\mathbb E[\epsilon_i] = 0, \text{Var}[\epsilon_i] = \sigma^2$. Also, we assume that the resopnse variable is linear in a latent features $z_i\in\mathbb R^d (p \ge d)$ and the covariates are also linear in $z_i$: $$y_i = \theta^Tz_i+\xi_i,\qquad x_{i,j}=w_j^Tz_i+u_{i,j}\rightarrow X=ZW^T+U,\tag b$$ where $\xi_i \sim N(0,\sigma_{\xi}^2), u_{i,j}\sim N(0,1)$ are mutually independent, independent of $z_i\sim N(0,I_d)$, and $\theta,w_j \in\mathbb R^d$. Letting $W\in\mathbb R^{p\times d}$ a matrix whose ith row is $w_i$, the models in (a) and (b) are equivalent. That is, we have the following results by matching their covariances: $$ \begin{align} \Sigma &=I_p+WW^T &(1)\\ \beta &= W(I_d+W^TW)^{-1}\theta & (2)\\ \sigma^2 &= \sigma_{\xi}^2+\theta^T(I_d+W^TW)^{-1}\theta &(3) \end{align}$$
The result (1) is quite straitforward by defining $x_i =Wz_i+u_i$ where $u_i\in\mathbb R^p, u_i\sim N_p(0,I)$ and $Cov[x_i] = WCov[z_i]W^T+I_p = WW^T+I$.
But I'm not sure whether the result (2) and (3) are also derived from matching the covariances. I tried to use the following method $$\begin{align} y_i &= \beta^Tx_i+\epsilon_i \\ &= \beta^T(Wz_i+u_i) + \epsilon_i \\ &= \theta^Tz_i+\xi_i, \end{align}$$ but I don't think this provides useful ideas regarding the desired results (2), (3).
Any hint with this questions would be grateful. Thank you.