1
$\begingroup$

I'm sure this is a solved question, but I haven't been able to hit on the right search terms.

Suppose I have paired samples A and B. A represents a derived variable (say distance "as-the-crow-flies" between two geolocations), and B represents a calculated variable (say distance calculated on the basis of two or more geolocations). A will always be less than or equal to B.

Taking what I assume is the simplest case, let's say I have three paired values for A and B:

set A B
1 200 400
2 200 500
3 200 200

If I didn't know that A would always be lower, I could calculate the standard deviation on the differences, but that seems wrong somehow.

My goal is to provide a very simple example of calibrating datasets with known measurement differences, but I think I've outfoxed myself all the same. Can someone help set me on the right path with some terminology?

Edit: To give an example on what I mean regarding calibrating data sets, in case this provides some helpful information

Assume I'm measuring someone's travel behavior over three days using two different instruments: a self-report survey, and an app that records their location. On each day, the person travels between the same locations and . The derived distance would be the same (e.g., 200 meters), whereas the calculated distance may differ if they take a slightly different route (e.g., 200, 400, or 500 meters).

Suppose I wanted to use this relationship to say something about a secondary data set where there was no calculated distance, only the derived distance. One sensible way of doing this might be to regress B on A, then use this model to predict B* from the known value of A* in the new dataset. Probably here it would be wise if not strictly speaking necessary to consider the distribution of my response, since it will always be strictly positive.

Anyway, while this is possible, my instinct is that there exists a simple way to calculate the upper boundary given the constraint that $A \le B$. If it helps to vary the values of A, that's fine as well.

set A B
1 200 400
2 300 500
3 200 200
$\endgroup$
1
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ It sounds like $B-A$ is a non-negative random variable. What, then, is the obstacle to calculating or estimating its variance, given that so many variables in practice are non-negative and present no difficulties? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Jun 20 at 14:21

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

The fact that A is always lower than B does not mean you cannot calculate the standard deviation of the difference (or the variance of the difference). But the fact that A is always 200 means that it adds nothing to the analysis. The SD of the difference will be the same as the SD of B by itself.

I'm not sure exactly what you mean by "calibrating datasets". I Googled it, and it appears to mean several different things. However, whatever it means, there's no information in A so, there's nothing to calibrate.

You need new data.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ I'm not sure that's correct. Of course you can calculate the standard deviation of the difference, but if you know that one forms the lower boundary of the other, my expectation is that this asymmetry contributes additional information to the analyses. The difference can only be positive. Both the t-distribution and the normal distribution would be improper choices for calculating a 95% confidence interval, for example, because they don't describe the strictly-positive distribution. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 20 at 10:59
  • $\begingroup$ If you want to form a 95% CI of the difference, that's fine. But that would be the same as a 95% CI on B. And, you can use a normal distribution to form that if the data is roughly normal. This does not violate any assumptions. For instance, people form 95% CIs of things like weight or height, that can only be positive. $\endgroup$
    – Peter Flom
    Commented Jun 20 at 11:13
  • $\begingroup$ I've elaborated in my answer, I hope it makes more sense now. The way I saw this example unfolding initially was in establishing an asymmetric CI for A (an upper boundary), using the variance of the matched pairs. While I understand your point regarding distributional assumptions, I posted here hoping someone could point me to something different. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 20 at 11:25
1
$\begingroup$

Assuming that $A$ is not a constant value (as in your 2nd example, not as in the 1st), i.e. $A$ carries some information, and also assuming that we have $A<=B$ for all pairs, simply compute the paired differences $B-A$, then compute a 90% CI (I assume you are using the "traditonal" $\alpha=.05$) for the mean (the paired differences do not need to be normal; it is the sampling distribution of the mean which needs to be). Replace the low bound with 0, and you now have a non-symmetrical 95% CI of mean differences. Alternatively, you can try different values of $\alpha$, until you get the low bound equal to 0; say this happens e.g. for $\alpha=.08$. You now have a symmetrical 96% CI for the mean.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.