I am reading about multinomial response models from the book Multivariate Statistical Modelling Based on Generalized Linear Models by Fahrmeir and Tutz. I am trying to understand the following paragraph from the book (Chapter 3.1, p. 70):
For the categorical responses considered in this chapter, the basic distribution is the multinomial distribution. Let the response variable $Y$ have $k$ possible values, which for simplicity are labeled $1, ... , k$. Sometimes consideration of $Y\in \{1, 2, ..., k\}$ hides the fact that we actually have a multivariate response variable. This becomes obvious by considering the response vector of the dummy variables $y' = (\tilde{y_1}, \tilde{y_2}... ,\tilde{y_q}), q = k - 1$, with components $$ \begin{equation} \tag{3.1.1} \tilde{y_r} = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if $Y = r$, $r = 1, ..., q$} \newline 0 & \text{otherwise.} \end{cases} \end{equation} $$ Then we have $$ Y = r \iff y = (0, ..., 1, ..., 0). $$ The probabilities are simply connected by $$P(Y = r) = P(y_r =1).$$
I am confused about the use of $r$ in the above set of equations. Is the $r$ in the equation $Y = r$ different than the $r$ in the equation 3.1.1? Because, if we consider $Y$ with $k = 4$, then for $Y = 4$, $r > q$, but considering equation 3.1.1, $r \in \{1, 2, ..., q\}$ and thus, $ r \le q$.