I have two sample sets that consist of independent trials of a binomial variable X = {X0, X1}
. For the remainder, I denote the probabilities as p0= p(X=X0)
and p1= p(X=X1)
; the sample sizes as N1
and N2
and the binomial coefficients as C1
and C2
.
1st Sample set: N1= 10 and the count of X0 observations is 2.
Hence, the maximum likelihood estimation (MLE) for p0=2/10
. The likelihood function for this distribution is: Lik1 = C1 * (p0^2) * (1-p0)^8
, which is plotted as:
2nd Sample set: N2= 100 and the count of X0 observations is 20.
Hence, the maximum likelihood estimation (MLE) for p0=20/100
. The likelihood function for this distribution is: Lik2 = C2 * (p0^20) * (1-p0)^80
, which is plotted as:
I know this much: As N is increased, lik(P;x) becomes more sharply peaked around the MLE (0.2), which means the width of the confidence interval decreases. I also understand that a confidence interval is not a probability statement for the MLE (0.2) since the MLE is a fixed value and not a random variable.
What I do not know: I am using an algorithm (i.e. Naive Bayes) that requires the multiplication of the MLEs of multiple variables similar to X. For instance: P(Class|X1,X2) = D * P(X1|Class)*P(X2|Class)*P(Class)
, where D
is the normaliser and I estimate all P(Xn|Class)
's via MLE.
Is there a statistically valid method, whereby I can incorporate a confidence weight (derived from the sample size) for each independent variable's MLE? In other words, I want to be able to attach a sample-size-related confidence weight to each MLE while multiplying them. I hope the question is clear enough.
Reading around a bit, I found that the approximate standard error for the MLE can be calculated by 1/sqrt(-lik''(P;x))
where -lik''(P;x)
is the second derivative of the likelihood function wrt p0 and is called the observed information. But I guess multiplying each MLE by its standard error does not make much sense..