Setting:
$X_i$ ~ i.i.d $Uniform(\theta,2\theta)$, and say we have shown that $X_{(1)}$, the first ordered statistic, is a consistent estimator for $\theta$. Now we want to show that
$$n \left( \frac{X_{(1)}}{\theta} - 1 \right) \longrightarrow_d G_1$$
Where $G_1$ is some non degenerate distribution. I have seen that
$$P\left( n(\frac{X_{(1)}}{\theta} - 1) > t \right) = (1-\frac{t}{n})^n \longrightarrow e^{-t}$$
and understand how to show this. The claim is that $e^{-t}$ is the tail distribution of a random variable having the exponential distribution with scale paramenter = 1.
This implies:
$$n \left( \frac{X_{(1)}}{\theta} - 1 \right) \longrightarrow_d Exp(0,1)$$
Knowing that convergence in probability implies convergence in distribution provides a little insight as to why this method works/is a good idea, but I still feel that I do not understand it completely.
For a fixed t, aren't we showing that it converges in probability to a constant? (Maybe an application of Slutsky then gets us to convergence to an exponential distribution, but I do not quite see how).
Moreover, why does the tail distribution imply that the entire variable behaves as an exponential?
Many thanks for your insights!