I'm reading the GPML book and in Chapter 2 (page 15), it tells how to do regression using Gaussian Process(GP), but I'm having a hard time figuring how it works.
In Bayesian inference for parametric models, we first choose a prior on the model parameters $\theta$, that is $p(\theta)$; second, given the training data $D$, we compute the likelihood $p(D|\theta)$; and finally we have the posterior of $\theta$ as $p(\theta|D)$, which will be used in the predictive distribution $$p(y^*|x^*,D)=\int p(y^*|x^*,\theta)p(\theta|D)d\theta$$, and the above is what we do in Bayesian inference for parametric models, right?
Well, as said in the book, GP is non-parametric, and so far as I understand it, after specifying the mean function $m(x)$ and the covariance function $k(x,x')$, we have a GP over function $f$, $$f \sim GP(m,k)$$, and this is the prior of $f$. Now I have a noise-free training data set $$D=\{(x_1,f_1),...,(x_n,f_n)\}$$, I thought I should compute the likelihood $p(D|f)$ and then the posterior $p(f|D)$, and finally use the posterior to make predictions.
HOWEVER, that's not what the book does! I mean, after specifying the prior $p(f)$, it doesn't compute the likelihood and posterior, but just go straight forward to the predictive prediction.
Question:
1) Why not compute the likelihood and posterior? Just because GP is non-parametric, so we don't do that?
2) As what is done in the book (page 15~16), it derives the predictive distribution via the joint distribution of training data set $\textbf f$ and test data set $\textbf f^*$, which is termed as joint prior. Alright, this confuses me badly, why joint them together?
3) I saw some articles call $f$ the latent variable, why?