Let $\theta > 0$ be some model parameter for which properties (bias, ...) of an estimate are studied via simulations.
For a given data set, an estimate $\hat{\theta}_i$ of $\theta$ can be obtained by maximising a likelihood function.
As $\theta$ is positive, however, I perform the maximisation over $\eta = \log(\theta) \in \mathbb{R}$ and I set $\hat{\theta} = \exp(\hat{\eta})$.
After running $N$ simulations, how should I compute the mean value,
- $\bar{\hat{\theta}} = \frac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^N \hat{\theta}_i$, or
- $\bar{\hat{\theta}} = \exp(\frac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^N \hat{\eta}_i)$?
Example:
-- Minus log likelihood for a sample from the Exp distribution with mean $\theta = \exp(\eta)$:
minusloglik <- function(eta, sample)
{
theta <- exp(eta)
- sum(dexp(x=sample, rate=theta, log=TRUE))
}
-- True value of $\theta$:
theta <- 5.73
-- Simulations:
thetaHat <- etaHat <- rep(NA, 1000)
for(i in 1:1000)
{
sample <- rexp(n=100, rate=theta)
etaHat[i] <- nlm(f=minusloglik, p=0, sample=sample)$estimate
thetaHat[i] <- exp(etaHat[i])
}
Question:
- Should I summarise the results as
mean(thetaHat)
or asexp(mean(etaHat))
? - Is the answer the same if $\theta$ denotes the variance of a normal distribution?