We often normalize inputs to the k-means algorithm by 1) subtracting the mean on a per-feature basis and 2) dividing by the standard deviation on a per-feature basis. Some rational behind this is discussed here:
Are mean normalization and feature scaling needed for k-means clustering?
But it seems strange to assume that the features aren't correlated, so my question is, why don't we fully whiten the data instead? In other words, if the data has mean $\mu$ and covariance $\Sigma$, why not preprocess each sample using $ \tilde{x} = \Sigma^{-1/2} (x - \mu) $ ?
The only argument I see is that this will get computationally difficult when the dimensionality of $x$ gets very large, for example $\gg 100$, but are there other reasons?
Thank you.