I am studying the efficacy of a novel drug in treating a cardiovascular disease with continuous variable results being measured and statistically analyzed. Suppose the control population is getting aspirin as the "placebo" treatment and the test population is getting the novel drug and aspirin. Aspirin in this case does have mild therapeutic effects on the parameters i am studying but is the study still placebo controlled since both the test and control populations are getting Aspirin? If not, how would i
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4$\begingroup$ It's hard to see how aspirin--a drug with known efficacy--could be construed as a "placebo" in any case. In fact, if it turns out the novel drug has no effect (but is administered separately from the aspirin, so that the subjects know they are getting two drugs), then arguably it would be the placebo in this study! $\endgroup$– whuber ♦Commented Sep 29, 2015 at 18:32
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2 Answers
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If you include in the design a placebo for the novel drug then it become placebo controlled. So in one group the participants receive aspirin and the placebo, in the other group they receive aspirin and the novel drug. This is the standard way to proceed as otherwise it is obvious whether they are receiving the novel drug or not.
In the case of comparing two active treatments, A and B, you would have two placebos: one for A and one for B. Each participant would then take either A and placebo-B or B and placebo A. If there was a third control arm they would just take both placebos.
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I think you definition of "placebo" is not a standard definition for clinical trials. If you want to test a new drug, then you also make another "placebo drug" which should looks like exactly the same as the new drug but "no effect" . These "placebo" will be prescribed to the control group the same as treatment group in order to control other effects except "treatment" effect.
I don't think there is a placebo in your study.
answered Sep 30, 2015 at 9:44