If I recall correctly, the equation for $R^2$ is $\frac{SST-SSE}{SST}$
So is the answer simply, $\frac{60-40}{60}=\frac{1}{3}$?
If I recall correctly, the equation for $R^2$ is $\frac{SST-SSE}{SST}$
So is the answer simply, $\frac{60-40}{60}=\frac{1}{3}$?
The regression model fitted is a polynomial regression model, so you may better search for Polynomial Regression model in the book of Douglas C. Montgomery on "Introduction to Linear Regression Analysis".