As the topic suggests I was wondering what the main differences are in using one over the other. Suppose for sake of simplicity the Dirichlet distribution has all parameters set to $\alpha$.
All I can think of is that considering that DPs use a stick breaking process the first few sticks tend to be larger. Since the last few sticks are smaller the clusters associated to them tend to be unoccupied. Thus the DP will limit the number of clusters available.
However it's conceivable for a given number of clusters $T$ both a truncated DP and a Dirichlet distribution will give the same realisation of $\pi$s.
For illustration of what I mean refer to the following two generative processes:
1. Dirichlet Distribution: $$ \begin{align} \theta_i&\sim\mathcal{N}(0,100) \quad i=1,\cdots,T\\ \mathbf{\pi}&\sim Dir(\alpha)\\ z_n&\sim\prod_{i=1}^T \pi_i^{1(z_n=i)}\\ x_n&\sim \mathcal{N}(\theta_i,1) \end{align} $$
2. Dirichlet Process: $$ \begin{align} \theta_i&\sim\mathcal{N}(0,100) \quad i=1,\cdots,T\\ v_i&\sim Be(1,\alpha) \quad i=1,\cdots,T\\ \pi_i & = v_i\prod_{j=1}^{i-1}(1-v_j)\\ z_n&\sim\prod_{i=1}^T \pi_i^{1(z_n=i)}\\ x_n&\sim \mathcal{N}(\theta_i,1) \end{align} $$
I understand that the same $\alpha$ may not derive the same $\pi_i$s but the point is in the case of the Dirichlet distribution,for an appropriate $\alpha$, won't (some of the $\pi_i$s be driven to zero) so that we get the same posterior on $\pi_i$?