I'll make several statements and then prove them mathematically, in case you're interested. If you want a quick summary, I'll provide one at the end.
First of all, both simple random sampling (SRS) and stratified sampling will provide you with an unbiased estimator of population mean $\mu$.
Proof 1:
Denote by $\bar{x}_{SRS}$ sample mean for SRS and $\bar{x}_{St}$ sample mean for stratified sampling.
$\bar{x}_{SRS}$ is an unbiased estimator for $\mu$
$$ \begin{aligned} E[\bar{x}_{SRS}] = \frac{1}{N} X_1 + ... + \frac{1}{N} X_N = \bar{X}_{SRS} = \mu \end{aligned} $$
Taking the previous and applying it, given $L$ strata, $\bar{x}_{St}$ is an unbiased estimator for $\mu$
$$ \begin{aligned} E[\bar{x}_{St}] &= E[\sum^L_{i=1} W_i \bar{x}_i] \\ &= \sum^L_{i=1} W_i E(\bar{x}_i) \\ &= \sum^L_{i=1} W_i \bar{X}_i \\ &= \frac{N_1 \bar{X}_1 + ... + N_L \bar{X}_L}{N} \\ &= \frac{\tau_1 + ... \tau_L}{N} \\ &= \bar{X} \\ &= \mu \end{aligned} $$
End proof
Since both sampling schemes give you an unbiased estimation, either is fine to use. However, the variances are not equal, and thus we can define conditions under which it is optimal to perform stratified sampling.
Recall that $W$ is the weight per group ie. $\frac{n_h}{N}$.
$$ \begin{aligned} V_{prop} &= \sum^L_{h=1} \frac{w^2_h s^2_h}{n W_h} (\frac{N w_h - n W_h}{N W_h }) \\ &= ( \frac{1}{n} \sum^L_{h = 1} w_h s^2_h) \frac{N-n}{N} \\ &= \frac{N-n}{Nn} \sum^L_{h=1} w_h s^2_h \end{aligned} $$
Recall that
$$ \begin{aligned} V_{ran} &= \frac{S^2}{n} (\frac{N-n}{N}) \\ V_{prop} &= \frac{N-n}{Nn} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h \\ V_{opt} &= \frac{1}{n} (\sum^L_{h=1} W_h S_h)^2 - \frac{1}{N} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h \end{aligned} $$
Recall that $W$ is the weight per group ie. $\frac{n_h}{N}$
$$ \begin{aligned} S^2 &= \frac{1}{N-1} \sum^N_{i=1} (Y_i - \bar{Y})^2 \\ (N-1) S^2 &= \sum^N_{i=1} (Y_i - \bar{Y})^2 \\ &= \sum^L_{h=1} \sum^{N_h}_{i=1} (Y_{hi} - \bar{Y})^2 \\ &= (Y_{hi} - \bar{Y_h} + \bar{Y_h} - \bar{Y})^2 \\ &= \sum^L_{h=1} \sum^{N_h}{i=1} (Y_{hi} - \bar{Y}_h)^2 + \sum^L_{h=1} \sum^{N_h}_{i=1} (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 + 2 \sum^L_{h=1} \sum^{N_h}_{i=1} (Y_{hi} - \bar{Y}_h)(\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y} \end{aligned} $$
Recall that subtracting the mean from a series of data is always 0. Since $\sum^{N_h}_{i=1} (Y_{hi} - \bar{Y}_h) = 0$, the third term disappears.
$$ \begin{aligned} S^2_h &= \frac{1}{N_h -1} \sum^{N_h}_{i=1} (Y_{hi} - \bar{y}_h)^2 \\ (N-1) S^2 &= \sum^L_{h=1} (N_h -1) S^2_h + \sum^L_{h=1} N_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 \end{aligned}$$
Note that $f = \frac{n}{N}$ aka finite population correction.**
$$ \begin{aligned} V_{ran} ( \bar{y}) &= \frac{1 - f}{n} S^2 \\ &\approx \frac{1-f}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h + \frac{1-f}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (\bar{Y}_h \bar{Y})^2 \\ V_{SRS} - V_{St} &= \frac{1-f}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h + \frac{1-f}{n} \sum W_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{y})^2 - \frac{1}{n} (\sum^L_{h=1} W-h_h S_h)^2 + \frac{1}{N} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h \\ &= \frac{1}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h - \frac{1}{N} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h + \frac{1-f}{n} \sum W_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 + \frac{1}{N} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h - \frac{1}{n} (\sum^L_{h=1} W_h S_h)^2 \\ &= \frac{1}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h - (\sum^L_{h=1} W_h S_h)^2) + \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 \\ &= \frac{1}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (S_h \bar{S})^2 + \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 \\ V_{ran} - V_{prop} &= \frac{1-f}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h S^2_h + \frac{1-f}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 - \frac{1}{n} W_h S^2_h + \frac{1}{N} W_h S^2_h \\ &= \frac{1-f}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 \end{aligned} $$
Interpretation:
We look at two kinds of stratified sampling schemes, proportion and optimum (Neymar Allocation) and show that both are better than simple random sampling. The proportional allocation method performs better than SRS when the following is maximized:
$$ \frac{1-f}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 $$
The only control we have over this expression is the difference between $\bar{Y}_h$ and $\bar{Y}$. This means that if you have strata that have means far from the grand mean, then proportional allocation will give you a smaller variance, and thus an optimal, better, sample.
The second kind, Neymar or optimal allocation, wants us to maximize the following in order to have the biggest difference, and thus the smallest variance:
$$ \frac{1}{n} \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (S_h - \bar{S})^2 + \sum^L_{h=1} W_h (\bar{Y}_h - \bar{Y})^2 $$
This gives us an additional term to the proportional allocation above. Thus, optimal allocation is better than proportional allocation because if the standard deviations of the groups are different than the grand standard deviation, then this term is bigger than the one above. There is no way that it is smaller. Thus, as a summary:
$$ V_{opt} (\bar{y}_{st}) \leq V_{prop} (\bar{y}_{st}) \leq V_{SRS} (\bar{y}_{SRS}) $$
Note that the above formulations hold when we assume $\frac{1}{N} \approx \frac{1}{N_i} \overset{.}{=} 0$ and assume that $\frac{N_h - 1}{N-1} \approx \frac{N_h}{N}$. When this assumption is not made, the above is slightly more complex, but still follows.
I've probably made some mistakes and some typos; I'll fix them when I have a little more time, but hopefully the general idea comes across.
TL;DR
Stratification is always better, assuming equal costs of sampling each strata. It's best when the mean and standard deviation of your strata are really different than your grand mean and standard deviation.
References:
Elementary Survey Sampling 7th Edition, Richard L. Scheaffer (Author), III William Mendenhall (Author), R. Lyman Ott (Author), Kenneth G. Gerow (Author), ISBN-13: 978-0840053619