Is the assumption that:
$E(e_i|x_i) = 0$
And the two assumptions that:
$cov(x_i, e_i)=0$ $E(e_i)=0$
Equivalent? (I have seen both formulation of the assumptions).
The two are certainly not mathematically equivalent, since covariance can be zero even if there are conditional errors. Such process would lead to OLS being inefficient, but not biased (since the process would increase the variance). So is it not the case that the first assumption is in fact the correct one?
But then, if $cov(x, e)=0$ and $E(e_i|x_i) != 0$, I presume that would lead to autocorrelation. Thus, the assumption that $E(e_i|x_i) = 0$ should replace the autocorrelation assumption as well. That means that the assumptions are more coherent using the 2nd formulation as no condition is stated twice. Adding the autocorrelation assumption to the bottom assumptions would also make the two mathematically equivalent, since there is no way I can think of that $E(e_i|x_i)$ could be unequal to zero without one of the listed assumptions also being unequal to zero. Am I correct in this?
So according to the above we should have:
If
$E(e_i|x_i) = 0$
Then:
$cov(x_i, e_i)=0,$ $E(e_i)=0$, $cov(e_i, e_j)= E(e_i, e_j) = 0$.
And as such the Markov assumptions that use the $E(e_i|x_i)$ formulation should not have the autocorrelation assumption as it is redundant.