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If $X$ has an exponential distribution with mean $\theta$, does $X^2$ have mean $\theta^2$?

If not, how would I find the variance of $X^2$?

I tried this:

$$V(X^2) = E[X^4] - E[X^2]^2$$

But I'm not sure how to factor the $\theta$ into the equation. The only way I can think is if $X^2$ has expected value of $\theta^2$.

I also tried:

$$V(X^2) = 4\theta^2V(X)$$

Any help is welcome, thanks.

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  • $\begingroup$ Welcome! Math typesetting is implemented with Mathjax. meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/5020/… $\endgroup$
    – Sycorax
    Commented Apr 26, 2016 at 3:04
  • $\begingroup$ Is this an exercise/study for some class? $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Apr 26, 2016 at 8:50
  • $\begingroup$ The mean of $X^2$, namely $E[X^2]$, equals the square of the mean of $X$, namely $\left(E[X]\right)^2$ if and only if $X$ has variance $0$, meaning that for all practical purposes, $X$ is a constant and does not vary at all. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 27, 2016 at 13:59

2 Answers 2

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You can directly calculate the mean of $X^2$,suppose your exponential distribution is $f(x;\lambda)=\lambda e^{-\lambda x}$.

$E(X^2)=\int_{0}^{\infty}x^2\lambda e^{-\lambda x}dx$ by integral by parts you can get $E(X^2)=\frac{2}{\lambda^2}=2\theta^2$.

By the same method you can calculate $E(X^4)$.

You also can calculate $E(X^2)$ and $E(X^4)$ by using moment generating function if you remember:

$E(X^m)=M^{(m)}(0)$, $M$ is the mgf and $(m)$ is the order of derivative.

The mgf of the exponential distribution is $\frac{\lambda}{\lambda-t}$

The first derivative (m=1) of the mgf in term of $t$ is $\frac{\lambda}{(\lambda-t)^2}$, set $t=0$, $E(X)=\frac{1}{\lambda}=\theta$

The second derivative (m=2) of the mgf in term of $t$ is $\frac{2\lambda}{(\lambda-t)^3}$, set $t=0$, $E(X^2)=\frac{2}{\lambda^2}=2\theta^2$.

You can continue to calculate others...

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Re your title -- the mean of $X^2$ and the mean of $X$ aren't even in the same units. Presumably you mean to ask something more like how the mean of $X^2$ compared to the square of the mean of $X$.

If $X$ has an exponential distribution with mean $θ$, does $X^2$ have mean $θ^2$?

(This question would be consistent with the above suggestion about a correction to the title)

The answer to this is obvious from the fact that the variance isn't zero: Given $E(X)=\theta$, if $E(X^2)=\theta^2$ then $\text{Var}(X) = E(X^2)-E(X)^2 = ...$

More generally, when $f$ is a convex function, then $E(f(X))\geq f(E(X))$ (see Jensen's inequality); equality only occurs when $f$ is linear or $\text{Var}(X)=0$.

For an exponential you can compute $E(X^k)$ quite easily, for example from the definition of expectation for a continuous pmf (the integral can readily be computed for integer $k$ - e.g. by integration by parts), though there are other approaches.

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