I want to simulate a data set for logistic regression in which my $Y_i \sim Bin(n_i, p_i)$ and $n_i >1 ~ \forall i$. I want something like:
In another question, data has been generated for a logistic in which $n_i = 1$. I am confused as to whether it would be correct to follow this method and then bin the $x$ variables and call that a population. I'm not quite sure how to do this without creating some sort of bias in the data that I won't account for in the logistic regression. I'm looking for an explicit description of how to account for $n_i>1$, if possible using R.
EDIT: Using the code in the question which I've tweaked, here is what I have:
set.seed(1)
x1 <- rnorm(6) # some continuous variables
n <- round(runif(6, min = 1, max = 20))
z = 1 + 2*x1
pr = 1/(1+exp(-z)) # pass through an inv-logit function
y <- matrix(0,6,1)
for( i in 1:6 ) { y[i] <- sum(rbinom(n[i], 1, pr[i]) == 1)}
Y <- y/n
Are there any reasons this is not a reasonable way of doing things?