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Suppose dependent variable has more than two possible discrete outcomes. I wonder what is the difference between fitting a multinomial logistic regression model and several pairwise binary logistic regression models?

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Do they return the p-values of coefficients?

# ------- Edit.

I did a comparison between multinational logistic regression and binomial logistic regression in R. They gave a different result. Hope someone could help.

Suppose I am interested in what is the odds ratio of being in pier and beach given one-unit of income increase. Fishing$mode has four classes, beach, pier, boat and charter.

In the multinomial scenario, I used following code to get the p value.

library("nnet")
data("Fishing", package = "mlogit")
fishing.mu <- multinom(mode ~ 1 + income, data = Fishing)
sum.fishing <- summary(fishing.mu) # gives a table of outcomes by covariates for coef and SE
# now get the p values by first getting the t values
pt(abs(sum.fishing$coefficients / sum.fishing$standard.errors),
   df=nrow(Fishing)-6,lower=FALSE)*2
# (Intercept)       income
# pier              0 9.271562e-08
# boat              0 8.725280e-06
# charter           0 1.352088e-01

the p value of the coefficient of income is 9.271562e-08. Then I fit a logistic regression using a subset of data, mode%in%c("beach","pier").

mylogit <- glm(mode ~ income, data = Fishing, family = binomial(link = "logit"),
               subset=mode%in%c("beach","pier"))
summary(mylogit)
# Call:
#   glm(formula = mode ~ income, family = binomial(link = "logit"), 
#       data = Fishing, subset = mode %in% c("beach", "pier"))
# 
# Deviance Residuals: 
#   Min       1Q   Median       3Q      Max  
# -1.4658  -1.2976   0.9499   1.0238   1.4920  
# 
# Coefficients:
#   Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(>|z|)    
# (Intercept)  7.037e-01  2.126e-01   3.310 0.000932 ***
#   income      -1.135e-04  4.817e-05  -2.356 0.018495 *  
#   ---
#   Signif. codes:  0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1
# 
# (Dispersion parameter for binomial family taken to be 1)
# 
# Null deviance: 426.30  on 311  degrees of freedom
# Residual deviance: 420.58  on 310  degrees of freedom
# AIC: 424.58
# 
# Number of Fisher Scoring iterations: 4

this time, the p value of the coefficient of income becomes 0.018495.

Why does this happen? Did I miss anything?

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    $\begingroup$ stats.stackexchange.com/q/52104/3277 $\endgroup$
    – ttnphns
    Commented Feb 3, 2017 at 22:06
  • $\begingroup$ @ttnphns Thanks. Could you explain what is the number of covariate patterns? Does it mean the unbalanced covariate? $\endgroup$
    – Frank Fan
    Commented Feb 3, 2017 at 22:46
  • $\begingroup$ @Momo I read the link but I still don't understand. Frank added an example in R. It seems that the multinomial logistic regression is not same with multiple independent binomial logistic regression? $\endgroup$
    – Frank Fan
    Commented Feb 4, 2017 at 0:42

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