Let $X$ and $Y$ be iid $\sim Normal(0,1)$
Let $A=max(X,Y)$ and $B=min(X,Y)$
What are $Var(A)$ and $Var(B)$?
From simulation, I get $Var(A)=Var(B)$ approximately 0.70.
How do I get this analytically?
If you can convince yourself that $$ \max(X,Y) \overset{d}{=} -\min(X,Y), $$ then taking the variance on both sides will give you your answer.
Regarding the other part, you'll probably have to integrate by hand.
Doing it out the long way, which generalizes to more than 2 iid Normals, here are the integral calculations in MAPLE:
$EA^2 = $
2*int(z^2*1/sqrt(2*Pi)*int(exp(-x^2/2),x=-infinity..z)*1/sqrt(2*Pi)*exp(-z^2/2),z=-infinity..infinity);
which equals 1.
$EA = $
2*int(z*1/sqrt(2*Pi)*int(exp(-x^2/2),x=-infinity..z)*1/sqrt(2*Pi)*exp(-z^2/2),z=-infinity..infinity);
which equals $1/\sqrt{\pi}$.
Therefore, Var(A) = $1-1/\pi = $0.68169... which agrees with my simulation.
Of course, Var(B) is identical.
Consider the standard normal case (since it's trivial to generalize). Let $Z = \max(X,Y)$.
$F_Z(z)=P(\max(X,Y)\leq z) = P(X\leq z,Y\leq z) = \Phi(z)^2$
hence obtain $f_Z(z)$ by differentiation.
As for expectation, note the following:
$\frac{d}{dx} \phi(x)\Phi(x) = -x\phi(x)\Phi(x) + \phi(x)^2$
Further note that $\phi(x)^2$ can be written in terms of $a\phi(bx)$ for some constants $a$ and $b$. From there you should be able to show that
$\int x\phi(x)\Phi(x)\,dx={\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}}\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\Phi(x\sqrt{2})-\phi(x)\Phi(x)+C$
(if not, show it by differentiation ...)
And by taking derivatives of $x\phi(x)\Phi(x)$ you should be able to use previous results to get to $E(Z^2)$.
.... Or just use the table of definite integrals here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_integrals_of_Gaussian_functions#Definite_integrals
with a little manipulation, I think you can do the expectation and variance from there.