I have a multiple regression (e.g. $y_i = \beta_1 x_{i1} + \beta_2 x_{i2} + \cdots + \beta_p x_{ip} + \varepsilon_i$), in which I want to demonstrate that $\beta_1 > \beta_2$. I have the full population's data available for the analysis, but because of the size of the data (in order of tens of billions of observations) I need to resort to downsampling in order to run the inferential analysis.
When I run the regressions on a sample and run the Wald test on the coefficients, the difference between $\beta_1$ and $\beta_2$ is rarely significant. But when I resample I see that $\beta_1$ is larger than $\beta_2$ almost in every instance.
So, to satisfy my curiosity I just made 100 different samples out of the population data and ran the regressions 100 times. Then I ran a t-test to compare the means of the two coefficient estimates for these 100 regressions, and the difference is highly significant!
But does that constitute a valid argument for the inequality of those coefficients? Is there any proper method that allows me to "stack" the regressions to benefit from the added information?