Yes there are plenty of cases; you're beating around the bush that is the topic of Bias-Variance tradeoff (in particular, the graphic to the right is a good visualization).
As for a mathematical example, I am pulling the following example from the excellent Statistical Inference by Casella and Berger to show that a biased estimator has lower Mean Squared Error and thus is considered better.
Let $X_1, ..., X_n$ be i.i.d. n$(\mu, \sigma^2)$ (i.e. Gaussian with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$ in their notation). We will compare two estimators of $\sigma^2$: the first, unbiased, estimator is
$$\hat{\sigma}_{unbiased}^2 := \frac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^{n} (X_i - \bar{X})^2$$ usually called $S^2$, the canonical sample variance, and the second is $$\hat{\sigma}_{biased}^2 := \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n} (X_i - \bar{X})^2 = \frac{n-1}{n}\hat{\sigma}_{unbiased}^2$$ which is the Maximum Likelihood estimate of $\sigma^2$. First, the MSE of the unbiased estimator:
$$\begin{align} \text{MSE}(\hat{\sigma}^2_{unbiased}) &= \text{Var}
\ \hat{\sigma}^2_{unbiased} + \text{Bias}(\hat{\sigma}^2_{unbiased})^2 \\
&= \frac{2\sigma^4}{n-1}\end{align}$$
The MSE of the biased, maximum likelihood estimate of $\sigma^2$ is:
$$\begin{align}\text{MSE}(\hat{\sigma}_{biased}^2) &= \text{Var}\ \hat{\sigma}_{biased}^2 + \text{Bias}(\hat{\sigma}_{biased}^2)^2\\ &=\text{Var}\left(\frac{n-1}{n}\hat{\sigma}^2_{unbiased}\right) + \left(\text{E}\hat{\sigma}_{biased}^2 - \sigma^2\right)^2 \\ &=\left(\frac{n-1}{n}\right)^2\text{Var}
\ \hat{\sigma}^2_{unbiased} \, + \left(\text{E}\left(\frac{n-1}{n}\hat{\sigma}^2_{unbiased}\right) -
\sigma^2\right)^2\\ &= \frac{2(n-1)\sigma^4}{n^2} + \left(\frac{n-1}{n}\sigma^2 - \sigma^2\right)^2\\ &= \left(\frac{2n-1}{n^2}\right)\sigma^4\end{align}$$
Hence,
$$\text{MSE}(\hat{\sigma}_{biased}^2) = \frac{2n-1}{n^2}\sigma^4 < \frac{2}{n-1}\sigma^4 = \text{MSE}(\hat{\sigma}_{unbiased}^2)$$