I started reading "A Conceptual Introduction to Hamiltonian Monte Carlo" today, and I've gotten stuck on understanding Betancourt's explanation of what a "typical set" is.
If $q_1, q_2, \ldots, q_n$ are generated from, say, a Metropolis-Hastings algorithm targeting the density $\pi(q)$, we can take the sample average in order to approximate expectations: $$ \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n f(q_i) \approx \int f(q) \pi(q)dq. $$
I am often told that, because we cannot run the sampler for an infinite amount of time, it's desirable to obtain samples in area of high density $\pi(q)$. Betancourt, on the other hand, says I should focus on area of high mass $\pi(q)dq$, and to ignore the variability of $f$. This makes sense to me because the integral above is kind of like $\sum_i f(q_i)\pi(q_i)dq_i$, and the big "contributors" to this sum are $q_i$ that have big $\pi(q_i)dq_i$. Really they are $q_i$ that have big $f(q_i)\pi(q_i)dq_i$, but we're ignoring $f$ for now.
What doesn't make sense to me, is why $dq$ isn't uniform all over the sample space $Q$. My intuition stems from these 2-dimensional Riemann integrals where we make $dq$ very small, and they're all equal to each other no matter where $q$ is. When each $q_i$ is 2-d, we have $dq=d(2\pi r) = 2 \pi r dr$. But why are we taking the change in volume of the 2-sphere (circle) centered at $0$? Here was a question on our site asking for advice on how to reproduce one of the plots. However, I'm not confused about where these formulas come from, rather I am confused about why they are coming from the places they are.