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Say we have a system with a fixed set of participants. Each participant has a reward fraction $f_i$. Ideally, if total reward distributed over some period is $R$, each participant should get its fair share by the end which is $R_i = R \cdot f_i$.

I'd like to come up with a metric that roughly captures how successful the system is in terms of distributing its reward according to fair shares.

What I came up with is this: let $r_i$ be the actual reward of participant $i$. We first calculate its distance from fair share in terms of percentage, i.e. $d_i = \frac{|r_i - R_i|}{R_i} \cdot 100.$ Then, I simply calculate the mean of $d_i$'s., i.e., if there are $n$ participants my fairness metric $m_f$ is $m_f = \frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n} d_i}{n}$.

Is this a good metric? I assume it roughly captures how far the system is from its fair distribution but not sure if there's a better way of doing what I want.

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  • $\begingroup$ I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is cross-posted on the Mathematics SE site. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 24, 2018 at 20:15
  • $\begingroup$ Please do not cross-post. That is against SE policy, & wastes people's time. Decide which site you want to ask your Q on, & delete the other. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 24, 2018 at 20:15

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Try HHI: $$HHI=\sum_if_i^2$$ In equal distribution it's $1/n$, if one guy grabbed it all it's $1$

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  • $\begingroup$ I agree that this is a useful measure. Its complement and its reciprocal are also interpretable. Attributing it to Herfindahl and/or Hirschman is common in economics, but their invention was at best a rediscovery. Good, I.J. 1982. Diversity as a Concept and its Measurement: Comment. Journal of the American Statistical Association 77: 561-563 doi:10.2307/2287710 cites several much earlier references than H or H. Some good names are repeat rate and match probability. $\endgroup$
    – Nick Cox
    Commented Jan 25, 2018 at 7:35
  • $\begingroup$ @NickCox, right, I use $1/HHI$ more often than HHI itself. $\endgroup$
    – Aksakal
    Commented Jan 25, 2018 at 12:36
  • $\begingroup$ Quite. It has a nice interpretation as equivalent number of equally frequent categories. "Numbers equivalent" is jargon in economics and perhaps elsewhere. $\endgroup$
    – Nick Cox
    Commented Jan 25, 2018 at 12:39

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