I'm working on a meta-analysis project that looks at the effect of "pure" depression (i.e., depression with no anxiety) on mortality. For studies that looked at the effect of pure depression on mortality, they either controlled comorbid anxiety (by adjusting it as a covariate) or excluded individuals with comorbid anxiety. I was wondering if those two procedures could be considered to be statistically similar or different. That being said, I'm wondering if I could include both types of studies to investigates the association between pure depression and mortality.
I'd appreciate any answers or advice!