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Suppose we have two independent exponentially distributed random variables with means $400$ and $200$, so that their respective rate parameters are $1/400$ and $1/200$. Do these random variables then follow a gamma distribution with shape parameter equal to $2$ and rate parameter equal to $1/300$?

I know that two independent exponentially distributed random variables with the same rate parameter follow a gamma distribution with shape parameter equal to the amount of exponential r.v.'s involved and rate parameter equal to the rate parameter of those exponential r.v.'s, but what about exponentially distributed r.v.'s with different rate parameters?

I looked online but could not find the answer, so I suppose that the answer is no. Is there a simple way to get the convoluted distribution of two exponentially distributed r.v.'s with different rate parameters?

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    $\begingroup$ A general answer to this question is given at stats.stackexchange.com/questions/72479. It applies because exponential variables have $\Gamma(1)$ distributions. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Jun 13, 2019 at 14:11

2 Answers 2

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If $X\sim \exp(\lambda_1)$, $Y\sim\exp(\lambda_2)$ and $\lambda_1\neq\lambda_2$, the sum $Z=X+Y$ has pdf given by the convolution \begin{align} f_Z(z) &=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f_Y(z-x)f_X(x)dx \\&=\lambda_1\lambda_2\int_0^z e^{-\lambda_2(z-x)}e^{-\lambda_1x}dx \\&=\lambda_1\lambda_2 e^{-\lambda_2z}\int_0^z e^{-(\lambda_1-\lambda_2)x}dx \\&=\frac{\lambda_1\lambda_2}{\lambda_1-\lambda_2} e^{-\lambda_2z}(1- e^{-(\lambda_1-\lambda_2)z}) \\&=\frac{\lambda_1\lambda_2}{\lambda_1-\lambda_2} (e^{-\lambda_2z} - e^{-\lambda_1z}) \end{align} which is the two-parameter hypoexponential distribution.

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  • $\begingroup$ $X$ and $Y$ need to be independent, I assume? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 7, 2023 at 13:57
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    $\begingroup$ @ThomasGassmann Yes $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 7, 2023 at 14:17
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If $X\sim \exp(\lambda_1)$, $Y\sim\exp(\lambda_2)$ and $\lambda_1\neq\lambda_2$, the sum $Z=X+Y$ has pdf given by the convolution \begin{align} f_Z(z) &=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f_Y(z-x)f_X(x)dx \\&=\lambda_1\lambda_2\int_0^z e^{-\lambda_2(z-x)}e^{-\lambda_1x}dx \\&=\lambda_1\lambda_2 e^{-\lambda_2z}\int_0^z e^{-(\lambda_1-\lambda_2)x}dx \\&=\frac{\lambda_1\lambda_2}{\lambda_1-\lambda_2} e^{-\lambda_2z}(1- e^{-(\lambda_1-\lambda_2)z}) \\&=\frac{\lambda_1\lambda_2}{\lambda_1-\lambda_2} (e^{-\lambda_2z} - e^{-\lambda_1z}) , \ \ z\geq 0 \end{align} which is the two-parameter hypoexponential distribution.

If $X\sim \exp(\lambda_1)$, $Y\sim\exp(\lambda_2)$ and $\lambda_1=\lambda_2=\lambda $, the sum $Z=X+Y$ has pdf given by the convolution \begin{align} f_Z(z) &=\int_{-\infty}^\infty f_Y(z-x)f_X(x)dx \\&=\lambda^2 \int_0^z e^{-\lambda(z-x)}e^{-\lambda x}dx \\&=\lambda^2 e^{-\lambda z}\int_0^z 1 dx \\&=\lambda^2 z e^{-\lambda z}, z\geq 0 \end{align} which is the two-parameter Gamma(2, $\lambda$) distribution.

Also, similar results can be calculated with LST.

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  • $\begingroup$ Though it's not evident, it's worth noting & can be proved that the hypoexponential distribution converges to Gamma(2, $\lambda$) distribution as $\lambda_1\to \lambda$ and $\lambda_2\to \lambda$. $\endgroup$
    – syeh_106
    Commented Nov 18 at 9:33

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