2
$\begingroup$

I have a AR(1) process $X_t = 0.4X_{t-1} + Z_t$. I multiplied by $X_{t-k}$, took the expectation of both sides, divided by the variance (which I assume is stationary), and got the Yule-Walker equation:

$$\rho(k) = 0.4\rho(k-1)$$

I thought that this is true for every $k$, but I was told that this is true only for $k\ge 1$. Why is that? where did I assume that in my derivation?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Because, for $k=0$, you'll have: $$\begin{align}\rho(0)&=E[X_t^2]=E[(0.4X_{t-1}+Z_t)^2]=(0.4)^2\underbrace{E[X_{t-1}^2]}_{\rho(0)}+0.8\underbrace{E[X_{t-1}Z_t]}_{0}+E[Z_t^2]\\&=0.16\rho(0)+\sigma_z^2\rightarrow \rho(0)=\frac{\sigma_z^2}{1-0.16}\end{align}$$ Typical assumptions are $E[Z_t]=0$ and $E[X_{t-1}Z_t]=0$.

But, let $k\geq1$: $$\begin{align}\rho(k)&=E[X_tX_{t-k}]=E[(0.4X_{t-1}+Z_t)X_{t-k}]=0.4E[X_{t-1}X_{t-k}]+\underbrace{E[X_{t-k}Z_t]}_{0}\\&=0.4\rho(k-1)\end{align}$$

You can't assume $E[X_{t-k}Z_t]=0$ when $k=0$ because $$E[X_tZ_t]=0.4\underbrace{E[X_{t-1}Z_t]}_{0}+E[Z_t^2]=\sigma_z^2$$ You can only assume the independence of current output and the future input; not current input and the current output.

Note: for all $k$, we have $\rho(k)=\rho(-k)$ so you don't need to consider $k\leq -1$ separately.

$\endgroup$
7
  • $\begingroup$ isn't it (1-0.16) in the denominator? $\endgroup$
    – ihadanny
    Commented Aug 25, 2019 at 6:54
  • $\begingroup$ so you mean that it's true for every $k\neq0$ $\endgroup$
    – ihadanny
    Commented Aug 25, 2019 at 6:56
  • $\begingroup$ Oh right, I've corrected the denominator, not the exact relation, $\rho$ is symmetric around $0$. For example: $\rho(2)=0.4\rho(1)\rightarrow \rho(-2)=0.4\rho(-1)$ $\endgroup$
    – gunes
    Commented Aug 25, 2019 at 7:22
  • $\begingroup$ so it's not true for k < 0! there it's $\rho(k) = 0.4\rho(k+1)$ - why is that? where in your derivation did you assume that k>=1 and not simply $k\neq0$? $\endgroup$
    – ihadanny
    Commented Aug 25, 2019 at 10:14
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Right, the nomenclature for auto-correlation is not stable across disciplines: see here: wikiwand.com/en/Autocorrelation#/Normalization ; in my answer, $\rho$ denotes the auto-covariance function, but simple scaling with $\lambda(0) $yields the autocorrelation function. So, the relation still holds. Mean of $X_t$ will be $0$ when mean of $Z_t$ is $0$; which typically is, since $Z$ is modelled as a noise process. $\endgroup$
    – gunes
    Commented Aug 29, 2019 at 20:27

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.