hopefully this isn't a duplicate of another question (at least I didn't find one).
Here is a question I have about completeness and sufficiency:
Problem: Suppose $T(x)$ is complete sufficient for $\theta$ given data $x$. Show that if a minimal sufficient statistic $S(x)$ for $\theta$ exists, then $T(x)$ is also minimal sufficient.
My solution: Since $T(x)$ is complete we have that $T(X)$ is the unique MVUE for $\mathbb{E}[T(X)]=m(\theta)$ for a specific function $m$.
Consider now $$V(X)=\mathbb{E}[T(X)|S(X)].$$
By Rao-Blackwell we know that $\operatorname{Var}(V(X))\leq \operatorname{Var}(T(X))$. Hence, by uniqueness of MVUEs we must have that $V(X)=T(X)$, i.e. that $T(X)=g(S(X))$ from the definition of $V(X)$ (for some function $g$). However, as $T$ is a function of minimal sufficient statistic, it is also minimal sufficient.
The problem with my solution is that I don't use the minimal sufficiency of $S$ until the very end, in comparison to the author's solution. Its idea is to say that $V(X)=h(S(X))$ by definition of the conditional expectation and then argue that $V(X)=f(T(X))$ as $S$ is minimal sufficient. The result then follows from the completeness of $T$.
I also seem to prove that every complete sufficient statistic for $\theta$ is a function of any other sufficient statistic for $\theta$. Is that true or have I made a mistake somewhere?