I think this is a fairly beginner bayesian analysis question.
I have a Beta Posterior with $\alpha = .32$ and $\beta = 1.35$ (estimated using MCMC), that describes a probability.
My question is: what is the best way to take a point estimate of the probability? My first thought for a posterior is to take the mode, since this will be the most probable value of my beta distributed random variable. However, with the above parameterization my pdf goes to infinity as p goes to 0 .
And indeed, wikipedia suggests that having $\alpha, \beta < 0$ mean there isn't a non-infinite maximum of this curve.
I don't think $p=0$ is the best answer, so is it valid to take the mean?
I don't have much experience with Bayesian analysis, so any advice/help/links to similar questions are appreciated!