I have the impression that the term pinball loss refers to the same as quantile loss (a.k.a. tick function); e.g. see the thread "How to calculate pinball loss for quantiles and for point forecasts?". Trying to visualize a pinball, I think the angle at which the ball hits a perfectly straight/flat wall and the angle at which it rebounds from it are the same (at least locally; on a skewed plane, straight lines become curved due to gravity). Meanwhile, quantile loss is characterized by different angles (as in the picture below) for all quantiles except the median. On the other hand, the image of the ball hitting a pin instead of the wall is not a very helpful analogy to the picture of the quantile loss function either.
Does that mean pinball loss is a misleading substitute for quantile loss?
P.S. Another funny thing is that the pictures illustrating quantile loss usually have a $90°$ angle between the incoming and the outcoming lines, which is again misleading. It is not a huge problem, though, as the loss function can often be scaled by a constant without major effects on the analysis, allowing to achieve the desired angle.