Assume, that we have several data generating measures $P_{1}, \dots, P_{k}$ and $Q$, all defined on the same probability space. Next, assume, we have the same amount of independently sampled data from $P_{1}, \dots, P_{k}$ and some data from $Q$ and we aim to find which distribution $P_{1}, \dots, P_{k}$ is the closest to $Q$ is a sense of KL-divergence.
KL-divergence, $D_{KL}(P_{i}||Q) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}p(x)\log\left(\frac{p(x)}{q(x)}\right)dx \neq D_{KL}(Q||P_{i})$, is not symmetric.
Therefore, if we compare $Q$ to all $P_{i}$, which one $D_{KL}(P_{i}||Q)$ or $D_{KL}(Q||P_{i})$, for $i = 1, \dots, k$ is correct to consider as the criterion?
From what I know, in AIK criterion one goes for $D_{KL}(Q||P_{i})$ case.
UPDATE:
My confusion is partly from the following fact that KL is a premetric, it generates a topology on the space of probability distributions. Let us consider the sequence of measures $U_{1}, \dots, U_{n}$. Then if $$ \lim_{i\to\infty}D_{KL}(U_{i}||Q) = 0 $$ then $$ U_{n} \xrightarrow{d} Q. $$