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Suppose we have the model $$ Y = g(X) + \varepsilon, $$ where the errors are zero-mean and independent of $X$.

I read that the conditional probability density function $f_{Y|X}(y|x)$ of $Y$ can be written as $$ f_{Y|X}(y|x) = f_\varepsilon(y - g(x)), $$ where $f_\varepsilon$ is the density of $\varepsilon$. How can this be proven?

Here is my attempt: $$ \begin{align} f_{Y|X}(y|x) = f_{Y|X}(Y=y|X=x) &= f_{Y|X}(g(X)+\varepsilon=y|X=x) \\ &= f_{g(X)+\varepsilon|X}(g(x)+\varepsilon=y|X=x) \\ &= f_{g(X)+\varepsilon|X}(\varepsilon = y - g(x)|X=x) \\ \end{align} $$ Since $\varepsilon$ is independent of $X$ I then drop the $'X=x'$ in the function argument to get $$ \begin{align} f_{Y|X}(y|x) &= f_{g(X)+\varepsilon|X}(\varepsilon = y - g(x)). \end{align} $$ The problem then is how to get the correct subscript on the density, eg. how to get $f_\varepsilon$ instead of $f_{g(X)+\varepsilon|X}$?

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    $\begingroup$ Because this follows directly from the definition of density and properties of subtraction, please indicate where you need pointers. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Nov 10, 2020 at 17:34
  • $\begingroup$ I added what I have done so far. I'm not sure how to get the correct subscript. $\endgroup$
    – csss
    Commented Nov 10, 2020 at 17:46
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    $\begingroup$ Subtracting $g(X)$ from both sides shows your model is equivalent to saying $Y-g(X)\mid X$ equals $\varepsilon\mid X.$ Because $\varepsilon$ is independent of $X,$ the density of $Y-g(X)\mid X$ must be the density of $\varepsilon,$ QED. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Nov 10, 2020 at 18:09
  • $\begingroup$ I don't see how you comment enables me to get from $f_{Y|X}(y|x)$ to $f_\varepsilon(y-g(x))$. Maybe it is clear to more experienced people but I interpret your comment as $f_{Y-G(X)|X}(y-g(x)|x) = f_\varepsilon(y)$. $\endgroup$
    – csss
    Commented Nov 10, 2020 at 18:52

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As mentioned in the comments, it follows pretty directly. But if you want to see it by going through a bunch of explicit steps, here's one way to do it.

The conditional distribution of $Y$ given $X$ can be obtained by integrating $\epsilon$ out of the joint distribution of $Y$ and $\epsilon$, given $X$:

$$p(y \mid x) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty p_{Y,\epsilon \vert X}(y, \epsilon \mid x) d\epsilon$$

Using the chain rule of probability, the integrand can be factorized as follows:

$$= \int_{-\infty}^\infty p_{Y \vert X,\epsilon}(y \mid x, \epsilon) p_{\epsilon \vert X}(\epsilon \mid x) d\epsilon$$

$\epsilon$ and $X$ are independent, so the conditional distribution of $\epsilon$ given $X$ is equal to the marginal distribution of $\epsilon$:

$$= \int_{-\infty}^\infty p_{Y \vert X,\epsilon}(y \mid x, \epsilon) p_\epsilon(\epsilon) d\epsilon$$

$Y$ is given by a deterministic function of $X$ and $\epsilon$; if we knew the values of $X$ and $\epsilon$, we would know the value of $Y$ with certainty. We can therefore write the conditional distribution of $Y$ given $X$ and $\epsilon$ as a Dirac delta function $\delta(g(x) + \epsilon - y)$. This places all probability mass at the point where $y = g(x) + \epsilon$, and zero mass at all other points.

$$= \int_{-\infty}^\infty \delta(g(x) + \epsilon - y) p_\epsilon(\epsilon) d\epsilon$$

According to the rules of integration with delta functions, $\int \delta(z-c) g(z) dz = g(c)$. So, our integral simplifies to:

$$= p_\epsilon(y - g(x))$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for that explanation, it is very helpful. Would you mind also explaining how it follows directly (eg. whubers comment)? Because my interpretation of that comment is $f_{Y-G(X)|X}(y-g(x)|x) = f_\varepsilon(y)$ and not $f_{Y|X}(y|x) = f_\varepsilon(y-g(x))$. $\endgroup$
    – csss
    Commented Nov 10, 2020 at 18:56
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    $\begingroup$ @csss Intuitively, if you add a constant value to a random variable, this amounts to shifting its distribution over by the specified amount. For any function $g(z)$ (including probability density functions), $g(z-c)$ is a copy that has been shifted to the right by $c$. In your problem, $\epsilon$ is the random variable, and we're shifting its distribution by the specified amount $g(x)$. $\endgroup$
    – user20160
    Commented Nov 10, 2020 at 19:41

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