I'm working on a problem in which we consider a simple regression with no regressors and equi-correlated disturbances. So we have
$y_i = \alpha + \varepsilon_i$
where $E[\varepsilon_i, \varepsilon_j] = 0$
and $Cov[\varepsilon_i, \varepsilon_j]=\left\{\begin{matrix} \rho \sigma^2 & i\neq j\\ \sigma^2 & i=j \end{matrix}\right.$
The above model can be rewritten as $y = \alpha\iota_n + u$
Since $\hat\beta = (X'X)^{-1}X'y$ we can say $\hat\alpha_{OLS}=(\iota_n'\iota_n)^{-1}\iota_n'y$. In Baltagi (2010) I found that $\hat\alpha_{OLS}=(\iota_n'\iota_n)^{-1}\iota_n'y = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{y_i}{n}=\bar{y}$. How is this last transformation derived? I fail to understand how the sum comes into play here as well as the n.
Further, it is stated that
$\Psi = E[\varepsilon\varepsilon']=\begin{pmatrix} \sigma^2 & \rho\sigma^2 & {...} &\rho\sigma^2 \\ \rho\sigma^2 &\sigma^2 & {...} & \rho\sigma^2\\ {...} & {...} & {...} &{...}\\ \rho\sigma^2 &{...} &{...} &\sigma^2 \end{pmatrix}= \sigma^2(1-\rho)I+\rho\sigma^2\iota\iota'$.
The matrix makes sense to me but here I also fail to understand the last step how one derives the expression
$\sigma^2(1-\rho)I+\rho\sigma^2\iota\iota'$ from the matrix. Maybe someone can explain, help would be much appreciated!