If a distribution contains a non-trivial unbiased statistic of zero, then this distribution does not have a complete statistic?
Here is what it means
Suppose we have a family of distribution $\mathcal{P}=\{\mathcal{P}_\theta:\theta\in\Theta\}$, and $X\sim\mathcal{P}$. If we there is a statistic $\delta(X)$ so that $\mathbb{E}_\theta(\delta(X))=0,\text{ }\forall\theta\in\Theta$, then $\mathcal{P}$ does not have a complete statistic.
Is this correct? If not, is there any counterexample?
Any reference is also appreciated.