hello I have two independent variable P and Q. They are both non-negative. Let $\alpha \in (0,1)$. Now I define two new variables on them:
The first variable is the sum of the two variables $$R_1:=\alpha P+(1-\alpha)Q.$$
The second variable R2 is the mixture of the two variables: there is a probability of $\alpha$ that we get P and $1-\alpha$ probability to get Q. Or formally, let 𝑍 be an independent, binary variable with $$𝑃(𝑍=1)=\alpha, 𝑃(𝑍=0)=1−\alpha,$$ then $$𝑅_2:=𝑍𝑃+(1−𝑍)𝑄 $$.
Here is an example. Let $P=Q=(10,0.5;0,0.5)$ which means there is 0.5 probability to get 10 and 0.5 probability to get 0. Let $\alpha=0.5$. Then $R_1=(10,0.25;5,0.5;0,0.25)$ and $R_2=(10,0.5;0,0.5)$.
From the a previous post, I understand that $$E(R_1)=E(R_2)\; and \;Var(R_1)<Var(R_2.)$$ However I wonder if we can get the stronger result that $R_1$ second order stochastic dominates $R_2$? That is for all $k \geq a$ $$\int_a^k cdf_1(t)\,dt \leq \int_a^k cdf_2(t)\,dt$$