I'm trying to using Kolmogorov's 3 series to show that if
$$ X_i \quad iid \sim N(0, \frac{1}{\sqrt{i}} ) $$
Does
$$ \sum_i^\infty X_i \quad \text{converge?} $$
Given that the sum of the variances $\sum_1^\infty \frac{1}{i^\frac{1}{2}}$ diverges, I'm thinking no it doesn't converge.
Is there a way to show this using Kolmogorov's 3 series?
As per the comment, I tried the following.
$$ P(|X_i| > A) = 2 \int_A^\infty i^{\frac{1}{4}} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-\frac{i^{\frac{1}{2}}}{2} x^2} dx $$
take $y = i^{1/4}x$
$$ P(|X_i|>A)= 2 \int_{Ai^{1/4}}^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-\frac{1}{2} y^2} dy $$
Which is a decreasing function of i.