I am studying how a clinical parameter (GFR, a measure of kidney function) varies over time across subjects. For each patient, we have a dataset of multiple GFR readings and the associated time they were measured. We summarized the change in GFR over time by performing linear regression for each subject to obtain the slope, which we then try to associate with other clinical parameters.
My supervisor was reading a paper where a mixed effects model was used to calculate slope instead, and suggested I do the same. However, conceptually, I'm not sure if this makes sense since slope is being calculated separately for each patient, so there is no other "effect" to include in the model. Here is how the paper phrased it:
"To calculate GFR slope, a linear mixed effects model including random slope and intercept was performed"
Can anyone explain to me how this is different from simple linear regression?
Thanks in advance!