I'm very sorry if this should be obvious, I'm just feeling a little lost with this assignment..
I have four independent variables X1,X2,X3,X4 plus a constant, modelled against Y. I know X4 to be heavily correlated already, it's mostly a control variable. I've checked for multicollinearity. There are 52 observations. These are the results with only one independent variable at a time:
X1 | X2 | X3 | X4 | |
---|---|---|---|---|
coefficient | 0.77 | -0.32 | 0.34 | 0.95 |
p-value | 0.0001 | 0.03 | 0.027 | 0.00005 |
adjusted r-squared | 0.567 | 0.0632 | 0.074 | 0.645 |
And these are the results when combined with X4:
(X1, X4) | (X2, X4) | (X3, X4) | |
---|---|---|---|
coefficient | (0.43, 0.64) | (-0.34, 0.96) | (-0.03, 0.93) |
p-value | (0.00001, 0.0000000084) | (0.000031, 0.00000001) | (0.73, 0.000006) |
adjusted r-squared | 0.757 | 0.747 | 0.63 |
I'm not sure if it's relevant, but the constant terms is varying positive and negative, sometimes with a significant p-value and sometimes not.
My question is: X2 only has 0.06 adjusted r-squared with Y by itself, while X4 has 0.645 by itself. But combined, r-squared increases to 0.747. Does that mean something is wrong with my model? Or that the tiny variance in Y that X2 explains (6%) is not included in X4, so that X2 is actually a significant variable in the model? Is 0.1 increase in r-squared even enough to say the combined model is better? Please help!