This question asks about influence functions. Probabilityislogic's answer is a bit fuzzy to me, but I can make more sense of jayk's answer, as this was the way influence function was presented to me in class. Note that I have a bachelor's in math and doing my masters, though still haven't taken functional analysis or operator theory (which I think is part of why I can't make sense of influence functions).
In bold, jayk wrote:
An influence function tells you the effect that a particular observation has on the estimator.
I don't see how, unfortunately. To me the contaminated distribution $F_{\varepsilon}(x) = (1-\varepsilon)F(x) + \varepsilon \Delta(x)$ is just redistributing measures (creating a new distribution). Maybe there is something else to see in the contaminated distribution?