From wikipedia, the assumption we are making in multinomial logistic regression is that we take one class as "reference", say class $K$, and we assume that $\ln\left(\frac{\mathbb{P}(X=k_0)}{\mathbb{P}(X=K)}\right) = \beta_{k_0}^TX_i$. This very much feels like a GLM, though I do not know what is the distribution used in the GLM.
An educated guess would be the multinomial distribution, but then we have to specify $y$ as a vector, $y = (n_1, \dots, n_K)^T$, and I'm slightly worried here as I have not seen exponential parameterization of multivariate distributions, are they even a thing?
EDIT: On second thought $y$ is not a vector, rather just which class. Since the goal is multi-class classification, we don't use the general definition of multinomial distribution, but rather $\mathbb{P}(\text{Class}=k) = \binom{1}{1_{k=k_1}, \dots, 1_{k=k_K}}\prod_{i=1}^K p_1^{1_{k=k_1}}, \dots, p_K^{1_{k=k_K}} $