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Consider two random variables $V_1$ and $V_2$, where $V_1$ is continuous and $V_2$ is binary.

In a paper, I found that the following equality holds: \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}\left[V_1|V_2=1\right]=\mathbb{E}\left[\frac{V_2}{\mathbb{E}[V_2]}V_1\right] \end{align*} I remember that I have proved that this equality holds without any assumption about two years ago.

But, I cannot come up with the proof again.

So, does that equality holds always? or other assumptions are needed?

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    $\begingroup$ You should include reference or link to that paper! $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2023 at 12:26

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In general, for any random variable $X$ and an event $A$ with $P(A) > 0$, $E[X|A]$ is defined as (see this question, this question and this question for related discussions): \begin{align} E[X|A] = \frac{E[XI_A]}{P(A)}. \tag{1}\label{1} \end{align}

Now taking $X = V_1$ and $A = [V_2 = 1]$ in $\eqref{1}$, and using the fact that $V_2$ is binary (so that $I_{[V_2 = 1]} = V_2$ and $P(V_2 = 1) = E[V_2]$) completes the proof.

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  • $\begingroup$ Precisely stated. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2023 at 12:38
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you! Your answer is very clear. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 10, 2023 at 14:35
  • $\begingroup$ @Zhanxiong Dear Zhanxiong, I have an additional question. As you explained $E\left[V_1|V_2=1\right]=E\left[\frac{V_2}{E[V_2]}V_1\right]$ hold. Then, is there any way to convert the conditional mean to an unconditional one? For example, if we multiply $E[V_2]$ into $V_1$, then $E\left[V_1|V_2=1\right]=E\left[V_2V_1\right]$, which is still not $E[V_1]$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 11, 2023 at 12:03
  • $\begingroup$ @MinChulPark Isn't $E[V_2V_1]$ already an unconditional expectation? Of course you cannot expect $E[V_1|V_2 = 1] = E[V_1]$ in general (which holds when $V_1$ and $V_2$ are independent). $\endgroup$
    – Zhanxiong
    Commented Jul 11, 2023 at 13:37

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