Question. If there is a one to one correspondence between a "borel probability measure" on the line $\mathbb{R}$ and a "cumulative distribution function" (CDF) (please see on page 13, "Theorem 1.2. (Lebesgue)", in S.R.S.Varadhan(2001), Probability Theory), is there, as well, a one to one correspondence between the "density function of a probability measure" and the "probability density function" (PDF)?
Indeed, on page 384, in Levin & Peres (2017) Markov Chains and Mixing Times, second edition, we can read as follows:
Given a density function $f$, the set function defined for Borel sets $B$ by \begin{equation} \mu_f(B) = \int_{B} f(x)dx \end{equation} is a probability measure.