Assume, the model we are trying to estimate is:
$Y=\beta_ß+\beta_1X+U$
where x and u are correlated: $Cov(X,U)\neq 0$
Then OLS is inconsistent:
$\beta_1^{OLS}=\frac{Cov(Y,X)}{Var(X)}=\frac{Cov(\beta_0+\beta_1X+U,X)}{Var(X)}=\beta_1\frac{Cov(X,X)}{Var(X)}+\frac{Cov(X,U)}{Var(X)}=\beta_1+\frac{Cov(X,U)}{VaR(X)}\neq 0$
If we introduce an instrumental variable, for which it holds:
$Cov(Z,X)\neq 0$
$Cov(Z,U) = 0$
One can show, that OLS is consistent, so that
$\beta_1^{IV}=\beta_1+\frac{Cov(Z,U)}{Cov(X,Z)}=\beta_1$
I wanted to proof this. Therefore I tried the following: $\beta_1^{OLS}=\frac{Cov(Y,Z)}{Var(Z)}=\frac{Cov(\beta_0+\beta_1X+U,Z)}{Var(Z)}=\beta_1\frac{Cov(Z,X)}{Var(Z)}+\frac{Cov(Z,U)}{Var(Z)}=?$
This does not lead to a nice solution (first of all $\frac{Cov(Z,X)}{Var(Z)}\neq 1$ and I have $Var(Z)$ in the denominator and not $Cov(X,Z)$)? Why, where is my mistake and how can I proof this?