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I have total of 6300 samples, 5800 of which are training data, and 500 of which are testing data. We compare the performance of LSTM and multilayer perceptron (MLP) with one hidden layer in terms of training process, prediction accuracy and learning ability.

we can observe that RMS error of LSTM is 3.47998, which is less than the MLP of 5.02391. It means LSTM is better than MLP in prediction. Learning ability analysis can be demonstrated by the curve comparison of forecast and observation TEC. We presented the prediction of six days from 2001/3/1 to 2001/3/6 in below Figure. It can be observed that the TEC curve forecasted by LSTM is closely fit for the observed TEC curve which is the ground truth, while there is considerable gap between the curve forecasted by MLP and the ground truth. It indicates MLP is inferior to LSTM in TEC forecast. Nevertheless, the tendency of forecast is right.

enter image description here

My question is: is it possible to find/define appropriate distribution function for both LSTM and MLP based on the above curves in figure?


Update: Consider the above case is Case1.

And there is another two variations of TEC curve below:

Case2: From 2015/6/18-2015/6/23, variation of TEC is very complicated. Beside the periodic variation, there are strong disturbance during one period. On this occasion, LSTM can capture the cyclic changes, and therefore give a better forecast, however, MLP is totally wrong with an inverse direction. Comparing to MLP, LSTM have the advantage of predicting long sequence data due to the memory cell. LSTM can learn the long dependencies of sequential data, not only the very past moment, but also a segment of history is taken into account. While MLP does not utilize history information, so it may fail in case of turbulence of TEC.enter image description here

Case3:

In case TEC varies suddenly, such as the case illustrated in Fig. 6, where the peaks of observed TEC in the five past days are large, while it dramatically becomes low in the next day. In this situation, RMS error becomes significant.

enter image description here enter image description here

Above, we discussed three cases of TEC changes, where LSTM all behave better than MLP. The achievement owes to the special design of LSTM, so that it can learn long dependences of sequential data. Thus, the interaction and relationship of the elements of sequential data can be learnt, and the better representation of input data can be obtained.

My question is: what can we say by seeing curves of above three cases for both LSTM and MLP? is it possible to define appropriate distribution function for both LSTM and MLP based on the above curves in figures of three cases? Is there any mathematical representation through distribution possible for three cases?

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Based on your answer to Sycorax I infer that you want to look at the distribution of residuals and compare the two empirical distributions of the residuals (MLP vs LSTM). For comparison you could look at e.g. "approximate/empirical" first order stochastic dominance of the residuals.

Another approach could be to plot a histograms of the paired differences of absolute residuals |residual_MLP(x_i)|-|residual_LSTM(x_i)|. If the histogram has more weight on positive differences then the MLP is "more often more wrong"

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  • $\begingroup$ Is it possible to represent mathematical representation of distribution of residuals and empirical distributions of the residuals? $\endgroup$
    – David
    Commented Jun 19 at 17:53
  • $\begingroup$ Would you explain your motivation why you use distribution of residuals? $\endgroup$
    – David
    Commented Jun 19 at 18:40
  • $\begingroup$ I am considering residuals because the smaller the residuals, the better the fit (imagine a model having only residuals which are zero...). You could also consider the distribution of observations P(y,t) this will lead you to probabilistic models and typically maximum likelihood estimation $\endgroup$
    – Ggjj11
    Commented Jun 20 at 5:41
  • $\begingroup$ |residial_MLP(x_i)| it should be residual? $\endgroup$
    – David
    Commented Jun 20 at 14:23
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, the absolute value of the residual at value x_i $\endgroup$
    – Ggjj11
    Commented Jun 20 at 15:41

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