I want to preface this post by saying I have limited statistical experience. To explain my issue, I will propose a hypothetical example. Suppose my boss wants the company to increase its profits and asks me to choose between two different strategies: increase advertising or increase corporate training. So, I collected all of the company data I could find on other companies. Conveniently, I can find information on their yearly profits (in dollars), advertising spending (in dollars), and corporate training spending (in dollars). In my eyes, all I would need to do is run a multiple linear regression, where yearly profits are my dependent variable and my two feature variables are advertising spending and corporate training spending. In this case, since each feature variable is measured in dollars, we can interpret the feature coefficients as the change in profits expected as a result of a one-dollar increase in advertising or corporate training spending, respectively. So, based on this logic, I feel as if it were to be reasonable to directly compare the coefficient values to determine which has a stronger effect on profits.
While this logic seems sound to me, I notice common objections online to this strategy. Most sources indicate that you cannot simply compare the coefficients because there potentially exists a unit difference that could be manipulated; the solution is to convert the feature variables into unitless values using standardization and then compare the coefficients of the standardized regression. However, in my case, aren't the units of each coefficient the same? Therefore, should we not be able to compare directly? If not, why?