I am developing a Poisson-family glm model in R for a dataset that I have. This dataset has 650 entries with two measures of exposure. The model, though not that relevant to the question, is:
$$\ln(E(y_i)) = \ln(\beta_1) + \beta_2 \ln(\text{exp}_1) + \beta_3 \ln(\text{exp}_2)$$
After developing the model in R using a Poisson Distribution, the summary()
function yields:
Call:
glm(formula = Y ~ log(Vmaj) + log(Vmin), family = poisson(link = "log"),
data = data.raw)
Deviance Residuals:
Min 1Q Median 3Q Max
-8.3003 -2.1364 -0.2094 1.8477 5.9722
Coefficients:
Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(>|z|)
(Intercept) -6.66172 0.24970 -26.68 <2e-16 ***
log(Vmaj) 0.55473 0.02132 26.02 <2e-16 ***
log(Vmin) 0.46638 0.01297 35.96 <2e-16 ***
---
Signif. codes: 0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1
(Dispersion parameter for poisson family taken to be 1)
Null deviance: 7063.6 on 649 degrees of freedom
Residual deviance: 4757.6 on 647 degrees of freedom
Running the same model, but using a negative binomial distribution yields:
Call:
glm.nb(formula = Y ~ log(Vmaj) + log(Vmin), data = data.raw,
init.theta = 5.642678818, link = log)
Deviance Residuals:
Min 1Q Median 3Q Max
-3.3076 -0.8128 -0.0806 0.6368 2.1555
Coefficients:
Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(>|z|)
(Intercept) -6.63440 0.64881 -10.225 <2e-16 ***
log(Vmaj) 0.55507 0.05599 9.914 <2e-16 ***
log(Vmin) 0.46321 0.03258 14.217 <2e-16 ***
---
Signif. codes: 0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1
(Dispersion parameter for Negative Binomial(5.6427) family taken to be 1)
Null deviance: 983.84 on 649 degrees of freedom
Residual deviance: 678.02 on 647 degrees of freedom
AIC: 5473.7
Number of Fisher Scoring iterations: 1
Theta: 5.643
Std. Err.: 0.362
2 x log-likelihood: -5465.748
One problem that I keep being told about with using a Poisson based distribution is over-dispersion. I understand that a measure of over-dispersion can be found by dividing the Residual (Scaled) deviance by the degrees of freedom. This measure would make the negative binomial look substantial better than the Poisson based distribution for dealing with over-dispersion. I understand that over-dispersion, from the POV of the Poisson, is fundamentally related to the way in which it assumes that the mean = variance. Consequently, I understand that the Negative binomial should have a larger variance, and so the standard error terms should be higher and the z-statistic lower.
What I do not understand is why the models have essentially identical coefficients, and are, for all intents and purposes identical. My understanding of the process is that the Negative Binomial is a better model, which to me means more accurate. However, when I look at these results I do not understand how using the Negative Binomial has improved the situation, despite the fact that cursory examination based on this shows the Negative Binomial has better addressed the problem over-dispersion.