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I collect very large samples (>1,000,000) of categorical data each day and want to see the data looks "significantly" different between days to detect errors in data collection.

I thought using a good-of-fit test (in particular, a G-test) would be a good fit (pun intended) for this. The expected distribution is given by the distribution of the previous day.

But, because my sample sizes are so large, the test has very high power and gives off many false positives. That is to say, even a very minor daily fluctuation will give a near-zero p-value.

I ended up multiplying my test statistic by some constant (0.001), which has the nice interpretation of sampling the data at that rate. This article seems to agree with this approach. They say that:

Chi square is most reliable with samples of between roughly 100 to 2500 people

I'm looking for some more authoritative comments about this. Or perhaps some alternative solutions to false positives when running statistical tests on large data sets.

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    $\begingroup$ It's a good question. There is, however, no objectively supportable basis for your ad hoc approach. That doesn't mean it will perform poorly--but it strongly suggests there are better procedures. To find them, it would help if you could edit this question to explain what kinds of errors you are attempting to identify, including how large they might be, how many of them might occur, and what the consequences are of (a) failing to identify some of the errors and (b) flagging correct data as errors. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Nov 6, 2013 at 19:59
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    $\begingroup$ From a mathematical point of view, a goodness-of-fit test with very large $n$ is perfectly fine - it's just that the corresponding null hypothesis is not very interesting: Why would you want to ask a "yes/no" question when you can get a "how much" answer? In your case, on a daily basis, you could estimate the change in proportion for every category, add a confidence interval each and see if they do not hit a predefined tolerance region around 0. $\endgroup$
    – Michael M
    Commented Nov 6, 2013 at 21:27
  • $\begingroup$ Your use of terms like 'significant' and 'false positive' seem to be at odds with the statistical meaning of those terms, especially if you're doing the test right*. I suggest you avoid those terms unless you use them strictly in the technical sense. Your basic problem is one of using hypothesis tests in situations where it may make little sense to do so; in plain, non-technical, English what is your actual question of interest? $\quad$ *(in particular, using the previous day as the 'population' isn't right, if you don't allow for its variability - generally it's just as variable as today) $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Nov 6, 2013 at 22:39

4 Answers 4

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The test is returning the correct result. The distributions are not the same from day to day. This is, of course, no use to you. The issue you are facing has been long known. See: Karl Pearson and R. A. Fisher on Statistical Tests: A 1935 Exchange from Nature

Instead you could look back at previous data (either yours or from somewhere else) and get the distribution of day to day changes for each category. Then you check if the current change is likely to have occurred given that distribution. It is difficult to answer more specifically without knowing about the data and types of errors, but this approach seems more suited to your problem.

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Let's go ahead and kill the sacred cow of 5%.

You have (correctly) pointed out that the issue is that of exuberant power of the test. You may want to recalibrate it towards a more relevant power, like say a more traditional value of 80%:

  1. Decide on the effect size you want to detect (e.g., 0.2% shift)
  2. Decide on the power that is good enough for you so that it's not overpowered (e.g., $1-\beta=80\%)$
  3. Work back from the existing theory of Pearson test to determine the level which would make your test practical.

Suppose you have 5 categories with equal probabilities, $p_1=p_2=p_3=p_4=p_5=0.2$, and your alternative is $p+\delta/\sqrt{n}=(0.198,0.202,0.2,0.2,0.2)$. So for $n=10^6$, $\delta=(-2,+2,0,0,0)$. The asymptotic distribution is non-central chi-square with $k=$ (# categories-1) = 4 d.f. and non-centrality parameter $$ \lambda=\sum_j \delta_j^2/p_j = 4/0.2 + 4/0.2 = 40 $$ With this large value of $\lambda$, this is close enough to $N(\mu=\lambda+k=44,\sigma^2=2(k+2\lambda)=168)$. The 80%-tile is $44+13\cdot\Phi^{-1}(0.8)=44+13\cdot0.84=54.91$. Hence your desirable level of the test is the inverse tail cdf of $\chi^2_4$ from 54.91: $${\rm Prob}[\chi_4^2>54.91]=3.3\cdot10^{-11}$$ So that would be the level you should consider testing your data at so that it would have the power of 80% to detect the 0.2% differences.

(Please check my math, this is a ridiculous level of a test, but that's what you wanted with your Big Data, didn't you? On the other hand, if you routinely see Pearson $\chi^2$ in the range of a couple hundred, this may be an entirely meaningful critical value to entertain.)

Keep in mind though that the approximations, both for the null and the alternative, may work poorly in the tails, see this discussion.

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In these cases, my professor has suggested to compute Cramér's V which is a measure of association based on the chi-squared statistic. This should give you the strength and help you decide if the test is hypersensitive. But, I am not sure whether you can use the V with the kind of statistic which the G2 tests return.

This should be the formula for V:

$$\phi_c=\sqrt{\frac{\chi^2}{n(k-1)}}$$

where $n$ is the grand total of observations and $k$ is the number of rows or number of columns whichever is less. Or for goodness of fit tests, the $k$ is apparently the no. of rows.

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One approach would be to make the goodness-of fit tests more meaningful by performing them on smaller blocks of data.

You could split your data from a given day into e.g. 1000 blocks of 1000 samples each, and run an individual goodness-of-fit test for each block, with the expected distribution given by the full dataset from the previous day. Keep the significance level for each individual test at the level you were using (e.g. $\alpha = 0.05$). Then look for significant departures of the total number of positive tests from the expected number of false positives (under the null hypothesis that there is no difference in the distributions, the total number of positive tests is binomially distributed, with parameter $\alpha$).

You could find a good block size to use by taking datasets from two days where you could assume the distribution was the same, and seeing what block size gives a frequency of positive tests that is roughly equal to $\alpha$ (i.e., what block size stops your test from reporting spurious differences).

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  • $\begingroup$ Could you please elaborate on the sense in which this approach would be "more meaningful?" $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Nov 6, 2013 at 21:57
  • $\begingroup$ It's statistical significance vs. real-world significance. By using 10^3 instead of 10^6 samples, the power of a single test is deliberately reduced, so rejections of the null hypothesis will tend to correspond to large lack-of-fit. This makes the result of a single test more meaningful because the OP doesn't care about "minor daily fluctuation". For 10^6 samples, the test might always reject H0 because of minor differences, so it's not clear whether a test result represents meaningful information. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6, 2013 at 22:20
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    $\begingroup$ Thank you: your comment raises interesting and important issues that begin to bear on what I think is the real underlying question; namely, how should one measure differences among data in order to detect errors and how large a difference would be of concern? Although your answer might be appropriate in some circumstances, it seems unlikely that it will effectively detect many of the kinds of errors that could occur in data and it also leaves open the (natural) question of what size blocks of data one should use. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Nov 7, 2013 at 18:04
  • $\begingroup$ @whuber, can the problem be redefined in such a way so that the null and its deviation is data size invariant but seeks some qualitative representation? $\endgroup$
    – Vass
    Commented Sep 18, 2018 at 21:45

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