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$R\sim Bi(n,\theta)$

i. The MLE of $\theta$ is $t_1(R) = R/n$. Find the MSE of the estimator

ii. prove that $t_2(R) = R/(n+1)$. Show that the $t_2$ has a lower MSE for $0<\theta<$ $2n+1\over 3n+1$

iii. Explain which estimator is better

I calculated that the MSE of $t_1$ is $$ \mbox{MSE}(t_1) = Var(R/n) = \frac{1}{n^2}Var(R) = \frac{\theta (1-\theta)}{n} . $$ Then $$ \mbox{MSE}(t_2)=\frac{n\theta (1-\theta)}{(n+1)^2}. $$

Edit: I think it would be smaller for all values of $\theta$ not just that range

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  • $\begingroup$ I can't see why $t_2$ would only be smaller for those values of $\theta$ $\endgroup$
    – user123965
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 13:18
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    $\begingroup$ Check the definition of the mean squarred error and correct your computations. $\endgroup$
    – QuantIbex
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 13:29
  • $\begingroup$ @Łukasz Kidziński No, it is not OK. The expression for the second estimator is wrong. The second estimator is biased so there is a term missing. $\endgroup$
    – QuantIbex
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 13:32
  • $\begingroup$ So I need to add the square of the bias? The bias being $E($$R\over(n+1)$$)-\theta$? $\endgroup$
    – user123965
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 14:01

1 Answer 1

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The bias of $t_2$ is $$ \mbox{Bias}(t_2) = E\left (\frac{R}{n+1}\right)-\theta = \frac{n\theta}{n+1}-\theta = \theta\left(\frac{n}{n+1}-1\right) . $$ So $$ \mbox{MSE}(t_2) =\frac{n\theta (1-\theta)}{(n+1)^2} +\left\{\theta\left(\frac n{n+1}-1\right)\right\}^2 . $$ Then $$ \frac{\theta (1-\theta)}n-\frac{n\theta (1-\theta)}{(n+1)^2} -\left\{\theta\left(\frac n{n+1}-1\right)\right\}^2>0 $$

$$ \frac{\theta(-\theta-3\theta n + 2n+1)}{n(n+1)^2}>0 $$

$$ -\theta-3\theta n + 2n+1>0 $$

$$ \theta<\frac{2n+1}{3n+1} $$

iii. $t_2$ would be better for all $\theta<\frac{2n+1}{3n+1}$ as it has the lower MSE. Otherwise $t_1$ is better.

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  • $\begingroup$ Note that the expression of the bias of $t_2$ can be simplified. $\endgroup$
    – QuantIbex
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 14:55
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. I guess the answer to part iii. is that $t_1$ is better because it isn't biased? $\endgroup$
    – user123965
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 15:02
  • $\begingroup$ And what is your conclusion if you compare them on the basis of MSE? What is your interpretation? $\endgroup$
    – QuantIbex
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 15:08
  • $\begingroup$ $t_2$ would be better for smaller values of $\theta$ (that satisfy the above inequality) $\endgroup$
    – user123965
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 15:13
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. Now that you're done. Would you consider to edit your answer and to provide the full solution to your question (some elements are spread in comments). This will be usefull for others that are interested in your question. $\endgroup$
    – QuantIbex
    Commented May 17, 2014 at 16:15

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