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Aug 21, 2014 at 15:36 comment added gung - Reinstate Monica Closely related: What is the intuition behind the independence of $X_2 - X_1$ and $X_2 + X_1$, $X_i\sim\mathcal N(0,1)$?
Aug 21, 2011 at 2:32 answer added Karl timeline score: 3
Jul 29, 2011 at 23:13 comment added probabilityislogic One alternative way to get around having to provide a reference. You can consider it a case of modelling the principal components of your data $X,Y$, rather than the individual variables themselves. That would be an easy thing to provide a reference for
Jul 27, 2011 at 13:32 comment added whuber Tukey doesn't prove anything in EDA: he proceeds by example. For an example of looking at $y+x$ versus $y-x$ see Exhibit 3 of chapter 14, p. 473 (the discussion begins on p. 470).
Jul 27, 2011 at 10:37 comment added Dmitrij Celov May be indeed to consider the 2 variable case as the separate case of multivariate rotation?
Jul 27, 2011 at 10:25 comment added Dmitrij Celov And the prove indeed is more than trivial with equal variances :( $Cov(X+Y,X-Y) = E((X-\mu_X)+(Y-\mu_Y))((X-\mu_X)-(Y-\mu_Y)) = Var X - Var Y = 0$... Good luck, Rob.
Jul 27, 2011 at 3:42 comment added shabbychef Wikipedia has a reference to a textbook at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… ; not sure that helps...
Jul 27, 2011 at 3:34 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackStats/status/96060794793500674
Jul 27, 2011 at 1:38 history asked Rob Hyndman CC BY-SA 3.0