Timeline for Monte Carlo simulation of integral diverges
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 8, 2018 at 18:02 | vote | accept | mathforumpythonhelp | ||
| Apr 8, 2018 at 18:02 | vote | accept | mathforumpythonhelp | ||
| Apr 8, 2018 at 18:02 | |||||
| Apr 8, 2018 at 18:02 | vote | accept | mathforumpythonhelp | ||
| Apr 8, 2018 at 18:02 | |||||
| Apr 6, 2018 at 20:07 | history | edited | Xi'an | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 1 character in body; edited tags; edited title
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| Apr 6, 2018 at 20:02 | answer | added | Aksakal | timeline score: 1 | |
| Apr 6, 2018 at 19:23 | answer | added | Xi'an | timeline score: 2 | |
| Apr 6, 2018 at 18:52 | comment | added | mathforumpythonhelp | ok, forget my example. Xi'an could you explain why it would not work. I understand it is probably trivial but I would appreciate it. whuber - you make a good point, forget my example, why would doing MC of an expectation that evaluates by hand to $\infty$ not work? | |
| Apr 6, 2018 at 18:07 | comment | added | jbowman | Why are you running a simulation to calculate the expected value of an integral which you've already determined evaluates to infinity? | |
| Apr 6, 2018 at 18:01 | comment | added | whuber♦ | A "value between 0 and 1" tells us nothing whatsoever, because you are free to choose any unit of measurement you want. Thus, your question comes down to "I did a simulation to estimate an undefined quantity and my simulation gave me a finite number. Why would that be?" The obvious answer is that your simulation might have been set up to give only finite values--but I write "might" because you haven't provided any details. | |
| Apr 6, 2018 at 17:51 | review | First posts | |||
| Apr 6, 2018 at 18:24 | |||||
| Apr 6, 2018 at 17:48 | history | asked | mathforumpythonhelp | CC BY-SA 3.0 |