I ran across this exercise:
Let $T$ be a random variable distributed as a $\text{Bernoulli}(p)$, $U$ be a random variable distributed as a $\text{Bernoulli}(q)$ and $W$ be a random variable distributed as a $\text{Poisson}(\lambda)$. Find the probability function of $X =T \cdot U\cdot W\,$ .
I first calculated:
$ \ \ P(T\cdot U = 1) = P(T=1)\cdot P(U=1) = pq \\ P(T \cdot U = 0) = 1 - P(T\cdot U=1) = 1 - pq $
Then I made a mistake thinking that:
$ P(X=0) =P(T\cdot U = 0 , W> 0) +P(T \cdot U = 1, W= 0) $
was the correct formula for the probability of $ X = 0$, this seemed reasonable and symmetrical to me, my intuition lead me astray.
I then thought that the $ P(X = 0) = P(T\cdot U= 0) + P(W = 0)$
For the second time, my intuition lead me astray.
The solutions highlight as the correct solution : $P(X= 0) = P(T\cdot U = 0) + P(T\cdot U = 1, W = 0) $
Intuitively I explained this result to myself as: if $ P(T\cdot U = 0) $ then I do not need to check the other random variable because anything times 0 is 0. If $ P(T\cdot U = 1) $ then I need the Poisson to be 0 to have $ P(X = 0) $.
But because my intuition failed me I would like to understand which probability law the solution is using to solve this exercise, It seems to me not the Total Probability law or any form of Bayes rule. A Formal proof of the equality being used would be helpful to me. Also If you want to point out in witch way my first two attempts where wrong I would be grateful.